Following the decision to give equal prize money to male and female winners at Wimbledon the same prize money (link), what does the forum think on the subject?
Personally I reckon they should only get it if they start playing best of 5 sets - doesn't seem particularly fair that they get the same for playing less.
Personally I reckon they should only get it if they start playing best of 5 sets - doesn't seem particularly fair that they get the same for playing less.